And in a similar vein, here's Ben-Dror Yemini at Haaretz:
How is it that, once again, the Jews - excuse me, citizens of theRead it all.
Jewish collective - are again deserving of boycotts even though they did not perpetrate any crime against humanity then, seventy or eighty years ago, or now, if we compare what other countries have done, including Britain, to what Israel is doing to the Palestinians. Why? Why are we witnessing an astounding, recurrent and disturbing historical phenomenon of a different law for Jews - a unique and racist law - than for all others?